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Practice · Dosing & titration · continued

Splitting a weekly dose in two: the pharmacokinetic argument against — the long version posts 121–149

This is a continuation of a long topic, addressed by post number rather than by page. Start at post 1.

BV
b.vanheckeTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#121

Coming back to post #119, because the follow-up matters more than the original answer.

The arithmetic of an intermediate dose: if the label says 1.0 mg and 2.0 mg, a dose strictly between them is off-label by definition. Some people compute it anyway. The reasoning is pharmacological — e.g., "I will split the difference between steps" — but it is reasoning from theory, not from evidence.

6 likes 2y
MS
m.strand_rphTL3Pharmacist10 Jul 2024#122

I disagree with the reply above, and I think the disagreement is substantive rather than terminological.

The distinction being drawn does not survive when you look at the published data for this specific question. I would be glad to be shown wrong on this, because the version I am arguing against is more convenient.

1 like 2y
DE
d.eriksenTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#123
r.venkatesan, post #88: Having read the exchange above, I think I was wrong earlier in this topic and I want to say so plainly rather than quietly editing. The correction was fair and I had been repeating something I had not checked carefully enough. Go to post

The arithmetic of an intermediate dose: if the label says 1.0 mg and 2.0 mg, a dose strictly between them is off-label by definition. Some people compute it anyway. The reasoning is pharmacological — e.g., "I will split the difference between steps" — but it is reasoning from theory, not from evidence.

31 likes in reply to #88 2y
JM
j.mwangiTL4 Moderator10 Jul 2024#124
h.bhattacharya, post #61: Stepping down deliberately: the withdrawal trials show that stopping is followed by regain. The step-down literature is thinner. The conservative assumption is that stepping down is followed by some regain, with the magnitude unknown. Go to post

Stepping down deliberately: the withdrawal trials show that stopping is followed by regain. The step-down literature is thinner. The conservative assumption is that stepping down is followed by some regain, with the magnitude unknown.

16 likes in reply to #61 2y
NC
n.cardosoTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#125

I read post #123 twice before replying, because I had assumed the opposite.

Two things before anyone answers the substance.

First, the context in the first post is clear and specific. Second, the question is framed so that an answer can actually address it. Both are the norm here and both matter more than they sound.

10 likes 2y
P
preregisteredTL3Research methods10 Jul 2024#126

This follows post #123 rather than contradicting it.

Dose equivalence between different incretin analogues is a weak concept. The molecules differ in structure, half-life, receptor selectivity, and in what has been studied clinically. One mg of semaglutide is not equivalent to one mg of something else in any meaningful sense.

3 likes 2y
RP
r.petrovTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#127

Reaching a dose and staying there for a year: the question of whether a stable dose remains effective over years is mostly answered by the withdrawal trials and by real-world reports. The dose does not seem to stop working, but the longest trials are not indefinitely long.

0 likes 2y
PE
ppm_errorTL3Analytical chemist10 Jul 2024 · edited#128
h.bakker, post #118: Steady state means the plasma concentration is stable from dose to dose. That happens around 4 to 5 half-lives. Before that, the concentration is rising with each dose. Escalating before steady state means escalating on incomplete information about the dose you are on. Go to post

Titrating on tolerability rather than on the calendar: some people escalate when they tolerate a dose well, others escalate on the prescribed schedule regardless. The published trials used a calendar-based schedule. Tolerability-based escalation has no formal evidence base but is not uncommon in practice.

22 likes in reply to #118 2y
CH
c.haddadTL210 Jul 2024#129
PN
plateau_notesTL2Regular10 Jul 2024#130

Picking up post #127: that is the part I would want checked first.

How the published trials escalated: they used specific step sizes and intervals. The STEP programme used a particular cadence; the SURPASS and SURMOUNT programmes used slightly different ones. Reading them side by side shows the variation is real but small.

0 likes 2y
K
KForsbergTL2Member10 Jul 2024#131

When a dose reduction is the correct response to a side effect: if a side effect is dose-dependent (nausea, constipation, injection discomfort), reducing the dose is a reasonable response. If the side effect is not dose-dependent (e.g., hypoglycemia with insulin), dose reduction does not address the issue.

11 likes 2y
AP
ar.petrovTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#132
n.cardoso, post #125: I read post #123 twice before replying, because I had assumed the opposite. Two things before anyone answers the substance. First, the context in the first post is clear and specific. Second, the question is framed so that an answer can actually address it. Both are the norm here and both matter more than they sound. Go to post

Worth separating two things that post #128 runs together.

Micro-titration: the concept of increments smaller than the labelled steps. It has no evidence base from trials but is described by some people. The downside is that very small increments are hard to measure accurately with a syringe.

24 likes in reply to #125 2y
FF
f.fenwickTL3Regular10 Jul 2024#133

This follows post #130 rather than contradicting it.

The four-week escalation interval is a convention from the pivotal trials, not a pharmacological constant. The pharmacological argument is that with a week-long half-life, four weeks approaches steady state and you can assess the dose fairly. That is an argument for not going faster. It is not an argument against going slower.

0 likes 2y
LA
l.aguirreTL210 Jul 2024#134
RF
r.friskTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#135

post #134 answers the question as asked. The question underneath it is different.

For anyone arriving from a search: the marked solution above is the direct answer, and the replies underneath it add the caveats that make it safe to use.

7 likes 2y
HF
h.ferrariTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#136
s.antonsen, post #114: The four-week escalation interval is a convention from the pivotal trials, not a pharmacological constant. The pharmacological argument is that with a week-long half-life, four weeks approaches steady state and you can assess the dose fairly. That is an argument for not going faster. It is not an argument against going slower. Go to post

On post #132 — agreed on the reasoning, with one qualification.

Holding a dose indefinitely: the trials did not study indefinite holding at a non-maximum dose. The trials escalated to a target and then held that. What happens if you stay at an intermediate dose for years is not formally studied and extrapolation is the best available reasoning.

17 likes in reply to #114 2y
RV
r.villalobosTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#137

Steady state means the plasma concentration is stable from dose to dose. That happens around 4 to 5 half-lives. Before that, the concentration is rising with each dose. Escalating before steady state means escalating on incomplete information about the dose you are on.

0 likes 2y
RD
r.danquahTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024 · edited#138

Holding a dose indefinitely: the trials did not study indefinite holding at a non-maximum dose. The trials escalated to a target and then held that. What happens if you stay at an intermediate dose for years is not formally studied and extrapolation is the best available reasoning.

1 like 2y
KF
k.fonsecaTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#139
t.pereira, post #26: Two things before anyone answers the substance. First, the context in the first post is clear and specific. Second, the question is framed so that an answer can actually address it. Both are the norm here and both matter more than they sound. Go to post

post #138 is right about the mechanism and I think understates the practical bit.

Stepping down deliberately: the withdrawal trials show that stopping is followed by regain. The step-down literature is thinner. The conservative assumption is that stepping down is followed by some regain, with the magnitude unknown.

4 likes in reply to #26 2y
KV
k.vanheckeTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#140

The arithmetic of an intermediate dose: if the label says 1.0 mg and 2.0 mg, a dose strictly between them is off-label by definition. Some people compute it anyway. The reasoning is pharmacological — e.g., "I will split the difference between steps" — but it is reasoning from theory, not from evidence.

12 likes 2y
SC
s.chowdhuryTL3Regular10 Jul 2024#141

The four-week escalation interval is a convention from the pivotal trials, not a pharmacological constant. The pharmacological argument is that with a week-long half-life, four weeks approaches steady state and you can assess the dose fairly. That is an argument for not going faster. It is not an argument against going slower.

7 likes 2y
MR
m.radichTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024 · edited#142

Thank you for the correction. I have edited my earlier post with a note rather than silently, so the thread still makes sense to read. The error was mine and it was the kind that comes from remembering a figure instead of looking it up.

1 like 2y
QL
quiet_lurkerTL2Regular10 Jul 2024#143

I read post #141 twice before replying, because I had assumed the opposite.

When a dose reduction is the correct response to a side effect: if a side effect is dose-dependent (nausea, constipation, injection discomfort), reducing the dose is a reasonable response. If the side effect is not dose-dependent (e.g., hypoglycemia with insulin), dose reduction does not address the issue.

0 likes 2y
AA
a.adeyemiTL2 Moderator10 Jul 2024#144
n.serrano, post #91: Coming back to post #89, because the follow-up matters more than the original answer. Practical note that does not fit anywhere else. Whatever you conclude from this topic, write down what you did and when. The single most useful thing in your own records is not any individual result; it is that they are dated and consecutive. Go to post

This follows post #141 rather than contradicting it.

How the published trials escalated: they used specific step sizes and intervals. The STEP programme used a particular cadence; the SURPASS and SURMOUNT programmes used slightly different ones. Reading them side by side shows the variation is real but small.

25 likes in reply to #91 2y
SC
sourced_claimsTL3Regular10 Jul 2024#145

On post #141 — agreed on the reasoning, with one qualification.

Practical note that does not fit anywhere else. Whatever you conclude from this topic, write down what you did and when. The single most useful thing in your own records is not any individual result; it is that they are dated and consecutive.

12 likes 2y
SG
s.grimaldiTL2 Moderator11 Jul 2024#146

Dose equivalence between different incretin analogues is a weak concept. The molecules differ in structure, half-life, receptor selectivity, and in what has been studied clinically. One mg of semaglutide is not equivalent to one mg of something else in any meaningful sense.

4 likes 2y
HO
h.oyelowoTL2Regular11 Jul 2024#147
e.mwangi, post #43: For anyone arriving from a search: the marked solution above is the direct answer, and the replies underneath it add the caveats that make it safe to use. Go to post

Splitting a weekly dose in two: the pharmacokinetic argument against is that you want the benefit of long half-life, which gives a slowly changing plasma level from a weekly dosing schedule. Splitting it flattens the curve further but loses the convenience of once-weekly dosing. The trade-off is convenience versus a slightly flatter concentration curve.

0 likes in reply to #43 2y
RB
r.bruunTL2 Moderator11 Jul 2024#148
cohort_watch, post #10: Two things before anyone answers the substance. First, the context in the first post is clear and specific. Second, the question is framed so that an answer can actually address it. Both are the norm here and both matter more than they sound. Go to post

Picking up post #145: that is the part I would want checked first.

Titrating on tolerability rather than on the calendar: some people escalate when they tolerate a dose well, others escalate on the prescribed schedule regardless. The published trials used a calendar-based schedule. Tolerability-based escalation has no formal evidence base but is not uncommon in practice.

0 likes in reply to #10 2y
P
PSundbergTL2Member11 Jul 2024#149
s.beaulieu, post #15: I read post #13 twice before replying, because I had assumed the opposite. When a dose reduction is the correct response to a side effect: if a side effect is dose-dependent (nausea, constipation, injection discomfort), reducing the dose is a reasonable response. If the side effect is not dose-dependent (e.g., hypoglycemia with… Go to post

Worth separating two things that post #145 runs together.

Reaching a dose and staying there for a year: the question of whether a stable dose remains effective over years is mostly answered by the withdrawal trials and by real-world reports. The dose does not seem to stop working, but the longest trials are not indefinitely long.

2 likes in reply to #15 2y

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